obssesednuker
Commander of 10 Million Men
- Location
- In the Kremlin, activating Perimtr.
Awkwardly, there is good reason for a religious rabble-rouser who got crucified at the request of the populace overriding the will of a Roman prefect to be mentioned in Roman records. Especially given the Roman military was used to do it and the near-riot conditions described.
Well the problem there is a shitton of Roman records have been lost, as the collapse of the Roman Empire wasn't exactly healthy on them. So while Jesus's execution record (on the assumption that Jesus actually existed, which is frankly pretty plausible given how Messianic preachers/prophets in Roman controlled Palestine/Israel/Judea/Whatever-you-wish-to-call-it were a dime-a-dozen, although the odds the historical Jesus bears little resemblance to that in the Bible is vastly greater) may be sitting around somewhere in Italy in a forgotten, buried cellar from Roman times it's far more likely to have either been destroyed or decayed to dust.
Considering you've disingenuously decided to frame the question differently from what was noted (specifically the totality of circumstances), it's worth pointing out we have two commentaries on Pilate's run as Prefect of Judea from Philo and Josephus that would both argue the story in the gospels is somewhat implausible, simply because Pilate never acted with respect to the Jews and would not have bowed to their will this way.
There's also the fact that the Gospel's give contradictory accounts of Pilate's interrogation of and execution of Jesus. The earlier ones portray Pilus as pretty perfunctorily deciding to execute while the later introduces the whole thing of him pleading with the mob to spare Jesus in favor of executing that murderer. The later account was probably an attempt to play to audience, as they emerge at the time Christianity split from Judiasm and had become a evangelizing religion within the Roman Empire.
There is a whole lot here and I don't want to engage in spaghetti posting. Let me say that I think we are not communicating well because you are asking these questions from the perspective of treating receiving eternal life like a reward and the failure to receive it as a punishment, which is contrary to the position I explained before. Any questioned based on that assumption is one I won't have an answer for, because I think it is wrong.
I'm also not a universalist and have my own criticisms of their positions, but I did want to represent them fairly, because they represent a large and ancient group of Christian believers. I will point out that "suffering" is very rarely interpreted as physical pain by universalists, but as sadness or shame resulting from being in a state of sin in the presence of perfection and grace. And the reconciliation comes from giving up the elements of one's nature that are in conflict with the divine, like selfishness and hatred.
The idea that the soul is immortal and naturally has to exist forever unless it is actively destroyed is Neo-Platonist philosophy, and not something I believe. We are native to this universe where things die. God has opened the way to eternal life. He has done for us what we cannot do for ourselves. Gaining that eternal life requires synergos, literally working together, with God to transform our nature. We do this by partaking in Christ's eternal nature, which was made available to us by his incarnation, death, and resurrection in our world, and which is attained by the sacraments and by acts of holiness. God grants us all that we are able to receive, it is our work to be able to receive what He would give us. That is our cooperation in our salvation.
As to the question about free will, I don't pretend to understand what the nature of existence in the presence of God is like and wouldn't like to speculate.
On the contrary: I'm treating the reception, or denial, of eternal life merely as something God does. Whether it is rewarded or bestowed or whatever is beside the point. The point is God does it. But Christian Theology makes it pretty clear that God has conditions for making his judgement in favor of eternal life. Some of those conditions I find perfectly reasonable (like living a good life, although the nature of said good life is rather more up for interpretation) while others I take greater issue with (belief in God and acceptance of Jesus, despite the absence of solid proof for any of this and the dubiousness of the material which acts as the existing "proof"). Whether you want to characterize it as a reward or as something else is beside the point. It is God who gives it and it is God who has made his criteria for it's grant.
I guessed you weren't a Universalist, but I also figured you might know some of the reasoning behind those details of the Universalist belief I asked about. If you don't, that's okay. In any case, emotional suffering is still suffering and a paradise and it strikes me that a supposedly omnipotent God cannot or will not create a paradisical afterlife where such suffering is eliminated as part of it's entry says more about God then it does about the entrants.
I care little about whether the soul is supposedly immortal or whether it has to exist forever (in part, since I don't really buy into the soul's existence to begin with). I'm more interested in the soul's relation to God and his wish to grant it eternal life. You treat this as if we are a necessary part of the process but it strikes me that as Christian theology characterizes God as a omnipotent being who wishes to grant the salvation of eternal life, the idea that God needs our assistance for us to achieve salvation or has to go through the whole charade of Christ comes off as asinine. As a omnipotent being God can simply grant the salvation of eternal life upon (or even before) our death and be done with it. If he is both willing and able to do this, then he will do it regardless of our own actions and beliefs. According to such a characterization of God, he will not merely open the door... he will also pull us through that door, kicking and screaming if necessary, at the end of our lives. If he is either unable or unwilling, then that calls into question the entire characterization of God in Christian theology. In this, I feel that universalism's assumption of automatic grant is more true to the Christian characterization of God's motives towards humanity, even if I take issue with some of the details (like the point of the whole Jesus escapade).
In sum, if our actions/beliefs are a necessary part of the process as you profess and we accept the Christian position that God is omnipotent, then the only conclusion is that this is the case because God has made it so that our access to eternal life is contingent upon those actions/beliefs. Or in other words, there are conditions set by God. That leads, of course, to the question of why those conditions are there and what they are.
I'm fine with your acknowledgement of uncertainty about the existence of free will in the afterlife.
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