Ignore the fact that this premise makes very, very little sense for a broad variety of reasons.
If the USA were to continue fighting the war until, say 1947, and then were forced to end the war, but without the compromise of the US mainland, what would be the economic and political consequences thereof. In other words, how capable was the US of sustaining the outlay involved in WWII?
A guess based on the peak debt in 1945, 121.7% of GDP, growing by 21% a year, suggests a debt burden of around 160% of GDP. Would this be the limiting factor, or would it have been more social and political?
EDIT: Because seemingly people really need to know how this happened to be satisfied. The USA lost the war in a completely conventional manner. During the war, only the USA had nukes, and there isn't a single attributable divergence point. The USA negotiated a surrender in 1946-47 which included only territorial concessions, i.e. the USA is still allowed to have a military. The UK negotiated a similar treaty which ceded most of its colonies to Germany. Italy has the portion of them it wanted. Japan seized most of SEA, India is a puppet state of the axis that probably isn't very long for the world. Chinese resistance continues. USSR has lost much of it's western area, and is slightly smaller then modern-day Russia.
Postwar both Japan and Germany have completed their own nuclear programs. Germany probably around 48-49, Japan around '50, but Japan's arsenal is growing faster then Germany's and has a greater focus on non-weapons development(Japan is home to the hypercentrifuge, and had WWII plans for nuclear submarines). None of the Axis powers like the USA, but they also don't like each other very much.
If the USA were to continue fighting the war until, say 1947, and then were forced to end the war, but without the compromise of the US mainland, what would be the economic and political consequences thereof. In other words, how capable was the US of sustaining the outlay involved in WWII?
A guess based on the peak debt in 1945, 121.7% of GDP, growing by 21% a year, suggests a debt burden of around 160% of GDP. Would this be the limiting factor, or would it have been more social and political?
EDIT: Because seemingly people really need to know how this happened to be satisfied. The USA lost the war in a completely conventional manner. During the war, only the USA had nukes, and there isn't a single attributable divergence point. The USA negotiated a surrender in 1946-47 which included only territorial concessions, i.e. the USA is still allowed to have a military. The UK negotiated a similar treaty which ceded most of its colonies to Germany. Italy has the portion of them it wanted. Japan seized most of SEA, India is a puppet state of the axis that probably isn't very long for the world. Chinese resistance continues. USSR has lost much of it's western area, and is slightly smaller then modern-day Russia.
Postwar both Japan and Germany have completed their own nuclear programs. Germany probably around 48-49, Japan around '50, but Japan's arsenal is growing faster then Germany's and has a greater focus on non-weapons development(Japan is home to the hypercentrifuge, and had WWII plans for nuclear submarines). None of the Axis powers like the USA, but they also don't like each other very much.
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