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Elizabeth Woodville, Edward IV, Catherine of Aragon, and Henry VIII

Kitsune

Kitsune

Location
Virginia
Pronouns
She/Her
Something I don't understand and this may simply be just contradiction here.

When Elizabeth Woodville married Edward IV, she already had two children.
She was in no way a virgin when married and if they had not been "gotten rid of" by Richard III, her son Edward or Richard would have become the next king.

Why was there any concern then that Catherine of Aragon was a virgin after having married Arthur, the elder brother of Henry VIII?
 
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Kitsune said:
Something I don't understand and this may simply be just contradiction here.

When Elizabeth Woodville married Edward V, she already had two children.
She was in no way a virgin when married and if they had not been "gotten rid of" by Richard III, her son Edward or Richard would have become the next king.

Why was there any concern then that Catherine of Aragon was a virgin after having married Arthur, the elder brother of Henry VIII?
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Well there's two different things there.

One, Edward's marriage to Woodville was done in secret and caused a lot of hassle when it was found out.

Two, the issue of Catherine was a matter of Catholic doctrine more than anything. Mostly concerning not "laying with thy brother's widow". If she was still a virgin, the marriage wasn't consummated and so it was fine - though they still needed permission from the Pope.

All this would, of course, lead to the eventual split with the Catholic Church in England.
 
Kitsune said:
Every source I have seen indicates that it was mostly politics driving it, not specifically that she was a virgin.
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... Yes?

The issue with Catherine was about whether she was virgin, IE, whether her previous marriage had been consummated. The issue with Elizabeth was that she had been married at all (and especially in secret).
 
Entropy Judge said:
... Yes?

The issue with Catherine was about whether she was virgin, IE, whether her previous marriage had been consummated. The issue with Elizabeth was that she had been married at all (and especially in secret).
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It could just be me who is being weird here. Maybe I am not understanding why it would be a big deal from the beginning. he seemed able to violate other areas of Old Testament law without any issue but this one was a deal breaker? He definitely coveted other men's wives for example.
 
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