This is far too broad a topic to accurately talk about it in generic terms, but for the most part the main players in the conquest of the Americas were lesser nobility without substantial patrimonies (mostly because they generally hailed from regions were the high nobility owned most of the land as a result of various shenanigans during the Reconquista period) and who hadn't found fortune in the military, so they decided to try their luck in the other side of the ocean.
Of course, this is an extremely broad strokes description, so if you wanted to ask about something more specific, ask away.
1. How many men usually make up an expedition force to the New World including servants and workers?
2. You say these men are lesser nobility, what about the major nobility? Did they go to the New World too?
3. What are they usually armed with? What kind of armour do they wear?
4. Who were the most notable Conquistadors? Excluding Herman Cortez of course.
You'd really need to go quite a ways back, given that many of the seeds of Spanish decline were sown in the same furrow as the elements that led to their rise, and many of the innovations that other European nations adopted were responses to Spanish power.Did Spain have a chance to halt or at least slow down its weakening in the 17th century? Relative decline vis-a-vis France and England/Britain might be impossible to stop, but I was wondering how subsequent history would be if the Spanish Empire could still compete with the French and British as a peer and not as a second-class power following France's lead.
Well, as far as I understand, while it followed France's lead in the Bourbon Family Pact, in return it also got quite much French money to reinvigorate its economy.Did Spain have a chance to halt or at least slow down its weakening in the 17th century? Relative decline vis-a-vis France and England/Britain might be impossible to stop, but I was wondering how subsequent history would be if the Spanish Empire could still compete with the French and British as a peer and not as a second-class power following France's lead.
Why and to whom would they give it up?I got to ask, what the hell led to the Spanish deciding to keep the Philippines. While minerally rich, the distances involved were staggering, and as far as I'm aware, the Spanish weren't as active when trading with the Chinese.
I got to ask, what the hell led to the Spanish deciding to keep the Philippines. While minerally rich, the distances involved were staggering, and as far as I'm aware, the Spanish weren't as active when trading with the Chinese.
Trade with Ming China via Manila served a major source of revenue for the Spanish Empire and as a fundamental source of income for Spanish colonists in the Philippine Islands. Until 1593, two or more ships would set sail annually from each port.
The Manila trade became so lucrative that Seville merchants petitioned king Philip II of Spain to protect the monopoly of the Casa de Contratación based in Seville. This led to the passing of a decree in 1593 that set a limit of two ships sailing each year from either port, with one kept in reserve in Acapulco and one in Manila
I recall hearing from a professor of mine that Technically under the treaty of Tordesillias, Brazil was Spanish and the Philippines was Portuguese areas of influence. They traded Brazil for the Philippines.Well, as far as I understand, while it followed France's lead in the Bourbon Family Pact, in return it also got quite much French money to reinvigorate its economy.
Why and to whom would they give it up?
Not quite true. Per the original treaty, only what is nowadays NE Brazil was in the Portuguese sphere. The Portuguese pushed inwards nonetheless.This is wrong. Brazil was always in the Portuguese area of influence.
The various treaties were pretty fuzzy entities to begin with, given they divided up areas of the globe neither power had exactly fully explored. Technically, Portugal should only have had the Eastern Coast of what's now Brazil within their zone, and Spain only a tiny fraction of the Philippines in theirs, but power politics led to plenty of fudging.
What is known about pre-Spanish contact cultures of Canary islands ? How much, if any links did they have with Carthaginians and other north Africans. I have seen suggestions they were something like a living fossil. A lost colony of Phoenicians, Numidians or some other north African power from pre-Christian eras. Rediscovered in 14th century. Any validity to this ?
Did Spain have a chance to halt or at least slow down its weakening in the 17th century? Relative decline vis-a-vis France and England/Britain might be impossible to stop, but I was wondering how subsequent history would be if the Spanish Empire could still compete with the French and British as a peer and not as a second-class power following France's lead.
One of foundational problems is that Spain had a global overseas empire before many of the tools later used to manage such had been properly developed, so they were stuck with basically feudal exploitation of their colonies, rather than the more sophisticated methods allowed via using joint stock companies to fund investment and trade, for example.It would have taken... lots of work, really.
If the guys who took over under the rule of poor Charles II had been closer to the mold of, say, Olivares (who certainly mishandled any number of things, but was vastly more capable than the guys who came afterwards), maybe.
But it would have been a very, very long shot, in any case. The economy was a ruin, the nation less a nation than a HRE style confederation of kingdoms who happened to be ruled by the same dude and Spain was not exactly the favorite of anyone in Europe, seeing the previous hundred plus years of trying (and sometimes managing) to kick the asses of most of Europe*.
The Habsburgs had widely enough distributed territories that they were basically everyone's, big, overbearingly obnoxious neighbour.*I am maybe overstating things, but I am given to understand that in a time in which no European nation much liked any other, Spain was more widely disliked than any other.
Depends on the time period. In the 16th century. In the 17th century, France was Europe's big bully.The Habsburgs had widely enough distributed territories that they were basically everyone's, big, overbearingly obnoxious neighbour.
By the 17th century, Spain's star was starting to wane, but it still possessed wide territories spread across Europe, and much of the enmity that had built up against it was still there.Depends on the time period. In the 16th century. In the 17th century, France was Europe's big bully.
Crippling inflation, primitive finances, hugely expensive wars, and a declining royal line.
Crippling inflation, primitive finances, hugely expensive wars, and a declining royal line.